A Simple Question for Christians about God’s Goodness

First, the doctrinal background for my question:

The Bible: “And God saw everything that he had made, and behold, it was very good.” (Genesis 1: 31a) This phase ". ..it was good." is used seven times in Genesis 1.

Doctrinal Christian attributes of God as affirmed in the Creeds:
Nicene Creed (381): “We believe in one God, the Father Almighty, Maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible.”
Apostle’s Creed (390) “I believe in God, the Father almighty, Creator of heaven and earth, . . .”

Doctrinal Christian attributes of God derived from the Bible (Followed by most Protestants and Evangelicals):
Westminster Confession of Faith:
Chapter 4 Of Creation 1. It pleased God the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, for the manifestation of the glory of his eternal power, wisdom, and goodness, in the beginning, to create, or make of nothing, the world, and all things therein whether visible or invisible, in the space of six days; and all very good.

Chapter 6 The Fall of Man . . . 4. From this original corruption, whereby we are utterly indisposed, disabled, and made opposite to all good, and wholly inclined to all evil, do proceed all actual transgressions.

Now a simple question of logical contention drawn from the Bible, the Creeds and Confession:
Is the action of sinful humanity ever justified in taking part of God’s creation and annihilating it from the face of the earth and then for humanity to feel righteously superior to God? (Yes or No and Why)
Or as simplified by exelayman: “Is sinful humanity ever justified in feeling more righteous than God after destroying a part of God's creation?”
Harry McCall